Discussion about this post

User's avatar
Daniel Greco's avatar

I wonder about the contrast between intuitions on the one hand, and considerations of simplicity, elegance, probability on the other. If you're going to treat intuitions as evidence and update on them in a Bayesian way, then you need a prior. What informs that prior? Won't there be disagreement about what prior to use that looks a lot like our initial disagreement--glossed as a clash of intuitions--over this or that philosophical theory?

Basically I worry that "treat intuitions as empricial evidence" amounts to moving the bump in the rug.

Expand full comment
Philosophy bear's avatar

"So, likewise, we may think that the concepts of morality and knowledge have to correspond to our intuitions as a whole, because their natures are determined conventionally, in the same sense the nature of a diamond is in part determined conventionally. Maybe knowledge just is the thing English speakers express with the word “knows,” and morality just is the thing English speakers express with the word “ought,” and so it’s no wonder that there is a preestablished harmony between their natures and our intuitions. For the philosopher who is skeptical of the possibility of completely a priori normativity (whether about belief or action) or about the existence of any a priori concepts, this seems like an entirely reasonable view."

Yep, this is me, at least for some very important cases where we use intuitions. Intuitions are more like truth-makers than truth-trackers, because many philosophical debates are best conceived of as debates about something internal to human psychology, rather than a joint in the world or a structure that any possible rational agent would have to recognise, or something like that.

Expand full comment
17 more comments...

No posts