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Daniel Greco's avatar

I'm very sympathetic to your claim that the intuitionist isn't really saying anything the Humean can't, but i suppose as a big fan of Hume, I would be.

I know you didn't attempt to give the grounding of the moral law without taking anything for granted in this post, but I still want to ask how that could be possible. Not in detail, but just how any kind of argument, in ethics or anywhere else, could proceed without taking anything for granted. Even in math you have foundational disputes about logic. Intuitionists and constructivists have lost those disputes as a matter of sociological fact (all to the good I say) but it's not as if their positions were proven false on the basis of zero assumptions.

And math would be the best hope for such arguments. Descartes tried to prove the existence of the external world on the basis of zero assumptions, and almost immediately after setting such high standards for himself he flagrantly violates them; I for one am perfectly capable of doubting that ideas can have no more objective reality than their causes have formal reality.

I want to say something like the following: any time you take one step in an argument to follow from previous ones you're taking for granted something that is in principle contestable. So I want to hear more about what this kind of assumption free argumentation could look like.

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Daniel Muñoz's avatar

One of the most substantive pieces of philosophy I’ve seen on Substack in a good while! Enjoyed this, even though I’m an intuitionist (and reject reflective equilibrium).

A couple of comments:

1) despite Hume’s “slave of the passions” line in T 2.3.3, I’ve come to agree with Setiya and Sayre-McCord that Hume actually *does* believe in a role for reason in morality. He just doesn’t call it “reason.” (And while he does have a role for sentiment, so does Kant—Achtung. So that doesn’t set them apart.)

2) it seems to me that a lot of your argument rests on the idea that, if X matters, it must matter for all rational agents as such. That seems debatable. Some very subtle mathematical evidence might give Ramanujan a reason to conclude that P even though it doesn’t give me any reason to conclude anything, since I can’t appreciate it. Similarly, in your Bob/Alice example, it might be that utility matters, though not for Bob, who fails to appreciate it. In Dancy’s terms, normative reasons might have enabling conditions, without that undermining their status as reasons.

Anyway, got a bunch more thoughts but I’ll leave it at that. Thanks for the very thought-provoking post!

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